2 unit evaluations biology 12th grade. Document attached.
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Name
_________________________________
I.D. Number
_______________________
Unit 3 Evaluation
Biology 1
(SCIH 025 061)
This evaluation will cover the lessons in this unit. It is open book, meaning you can use your textbook, syllabus, and other course materials. You will need to understand, analyze, and apply the information you have learned in order to answer the questions correctly. To submit the evaluation, follow the directions provided.
Multiple Choice
Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_____
1. A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when
mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
homozygous recessive.
heterozygous.
homozygous dominant.
haploid.
2. In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant to single comb (r). A homozygous rose-combed
rooster is mated with a single-combed hen. All of the chicks in the F1 generation were
kept together as a group for several years. They were allowed to mate only within their
own group. What is the expected phenotype of the F2 chicks?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
100% rose comb
75% rose comb and 25% single comb
100% single comb
50% rose comb and 50% single comb
3. In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous brown
mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how many would
be expected to be silver-blue?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
0
3
6
8
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_____ 4. This diagram shows a diploid cell with two
homologous pairs of chromosomes. Due to
independent assortment, what are the possible
allelic combinations that could be found in
gametes produced by meiosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
Yy, Ss, SS, and YY
SY, sY, Sy, and sy
SsYy and SYsy
Sy and sY only
5. Using the following diagram, which process would result in the formation of
chromosome C from chromosomes A and B?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
asexual reproduction
independent assortment
crossing over
segregation
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_____
6. If inflated pods are I and constricted pods
are c, what is the genotype of first filial
generation (F1) in this diagram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
II
Ic
cc
I
7. Using the following Punnett square, what fraction of this cross will be recessive for both
traits?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
1/2
1/4
1/8
1/16
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Use the following diagram to answer questions 8 and 9.
_____
8. In this diagram, which set of chromatids illustrates the result of a single crossover of
the homologous chromosomes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
A
B
C
D
9. In this diagram, which set of chromatids will result if each chromatid crossed with a
nonsister chromatid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A
B
C
D
_____ 10. Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?
a.
b.
c.
d.
when DNA is being replicated
when homologous chromosomes are bound as pairs
when centromeres are separated
when cytokinesis begins
_____ 11. What is the role of the spindle fibers?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
to join homologous chromosomes together
to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis
to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane
to move chromosomes in the cell
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_____ 12. Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBb, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis
occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be
made for these traits?
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
8
_____ 13. A true-breeding tall pea plant (T) is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant (t),
and all the offspring are tall. What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming
a single-gene trait?
a.
b.
c.
d.
tt
Tt
TT
either TT or tt
_____ 14. In mice, black is dominant to white color and color is determined by a single gene. Two
black mice are crossed. They produce two black offspring and one white offspring. If
the white offspring is crossed with one of its parents, what percent of the offspring
would you expect to be white?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
25
50
75
_____ 15. Mendel crossed a true-breeding plant that produced green seeds with a true-breeding
plant that produced yellow seeds to produce an F1 generation. The entire F1
generation produced yellow seeds. Then he crossed the F1 offspring with each other to
produce the F2 generation. From the F2 generation, he counted 6022 yellow seeds.
Which of these is the most likely estimate of the number of green seeds he collected
from the F2 generation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
2000
6000
18000
_____ 16. In which of the following situations are the phenotypes of F2 offspring expected to
follow the ratio of 9:3:3:1?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
a monohybrid cross for two unlinked traits
a monohybrid cross for two closely linked traits
a dihybrid cross for two unlinked traits
a dihybrid cross for two closely linked traits
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_____ 17. If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what percent of their offspring are also
expected to be heterozygous?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
50
75
100
_____ 18. Two rabbits that were homozygous for both coat and eye color were crossed. The
following are the phenotypes of their F2 generation. Which most strongly suggest that
the genes for eye color and coat color are linked?
a. 22 brown coat brown eye, 7 brown coat blue eye, 9 white coat brown eye,
4 white coat blue eye
b. 62 brown coat brown eye, 21 brown coat blue eye, 18 white coat brown eye,
7 white coat blue eye
c. 92 brown coat brown eye, 35 brown coat blue eye, 31 white coat brown eye,
11 white coat blue eye
d. 95 brown coat brown eye, 12 brown coat blue eye, 16 white coat brown eye,
30 white coat blue eye
_____ 19. At which stage of meiosis do a haploid number of chromosomes line up at the equator
of the cell?
a.
b.
c.
d.
anaphase I
metaphase I
anaphase II
metaphase II
Use the following pedigree to answer questions 20–21.
Unit 3 Evaluation
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_____ 20. Hemophilia is a recessive genetic disorder. According to the pedigree given, if
individual III-2 marries a person with the same genotype as individual I-1, what is the
chance that one of their children will be afflicted with hemophilia?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0%
25%
50%
75%
_____ 21. According to the pedigree given, what type of inheritance pattern does the trait
represented by the shaded symbols illustrate?
a.
b.
c.
d.
incomplete dominance
multiple alleles
codominance
sex-linked traits
_____ 22. When roan cattle are mated, 25% of the offspring are red, 50% are roan, and 25% are
white. Roan cattle are heterozygous for coat color. Upon examination, it can be seen
that the coat of a roan cow consists of both red and white hairs. This trait is one that is
controlled by
a.
b.
c.
d.
multiple alleles.
codominant alleles.
sex-linked genes.
polygenic inheritance.
_____ 23. The disease characterized by the absence of melanin is
a.
b.
c.
d.
cystic fibrosis.
albinism.
galactosemia.
Tay-Sachs.
_____ 24. Under what circumstances will a recessive trait be expressed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
One parent passes on the recessive allele.
A recessive allele is passed on by both parents.
There is a mutation in the dominant gene.
The individual is heterozygous for the trait.
_____ 25. When a homozygous male animal with black fur is crossed with a homozygous female
with white fur, they have offspring with gray fur. What type of inheritance does this
represent?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
dosage compensation
incomplete dominance
multiple alleles
sex-linked
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_____ 26. Examine the following graph which illustrates the
frequency in types of skin pigmentation in humans.
Another human trait that would show a similar
inheritance pattern and frequency of distribution is
a.
b.
c.
d.
height.
blood type.
number of fingers and toes.
incidence of cystic fibrosis.
_____ 27. According to the following pedigree, what is the chance that individual A will be afflicted
with Huntington’s disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25%
50%
75%
100%
_____ 28. Cell division in which the sister chromatids fail to separate properly is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
multiple alleles.
nondisjunction.
nonsynapsis.
trisomy.
_____ 29. When a person’s cells have an extra copy of chromosome 21, it usually results in
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Down syndrome.
Turner’s syndrome.
Tay-Sachs disease.
Klinefelter’s syndrome.
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_____ 30. An individual with the chromosomal genotype XYY would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
a nearly normal female.
a female with Turner’s syndrome.
a nearly normal male.
a male with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
_____ 31. You are a medical researcher trying to create a new antibiotic that will interfere with
bacterial DNA replication without harming the eukaryotic host. You have found several
chemicals that prevent DNA from unwinding and separating. Which of the following
would be the best chemical to use?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a chemical that blocks uracil use
a chemical that cannot pass into the cell nucleus
a chemical that is neutralized by cytoplasm
a chemical that works only in the presence of histones
_____ 32. The small segments of the lagging DNA strand are called
a.
b.
c.
d.
helicase.
nucleotides.
Okazaki fragments.
Hershey bits.
_____ 33. The base-pairing rule for binding purines and pyrimidines in the DNA molecule is
a.
b.
c.
d.
C-U and A-G.
A-G and C-T.
A-T and C-G.
C-A and G-T.
_____ 34. Which shows the basic chain of events in all organisms for reading and expressing
genes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
DNA → RNA→protein
RNA →DNA→protein
mRNA→rRNA→tRNA
RNA processing→transcription→translation
_____ 35. The process through which the mRNA is synthesized from the template DNA is called
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
RNA processing.
translation.
protein synthesis.
transcription.
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_____ 36. What type of mutation has occurred
in this diagram?
a.
b.
c.
d.
substitution
frameshift
lethal
insertion
_____ 37. What is the purpose of producing a line by inbreeding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
reducing the number of genes
reducing dominant traits
eliminating recessive traits
eliminating hidden variation
_____ 38. In a test cross, if one parent’s genotype is homozygous dominant,
a.
b.
c.
d.
all of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
3/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
1/2 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
1/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype.
_____ 39. Which outcome is possible using genetic engineering, but not using selective
breeding?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a sheep with wool longer than wool produced by any other sheep
corn that produces one large corn cob per plant
a bacterium that produces human insulin
a hairless variety of cow
_____ 40. Why have viruses been used in gene therapy in humans?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 3 Evaluation
They inject DNA into cells.
They are passed from one person to another.
They are disease-causing factors.
They contain restriction endonucleases.
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Matching
Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. codominance
b. carrier
c. gene
d. fertilization
e. phenotype
_____ 41. the process by which one haploid gamete combines with another haploid gamete
_____ 42. the outward expression or observable characteristic of an allele pair
_____ 43. a complex inheritance pattern in which both alleles are expressed in the heterozygous
condition
_____ 44. an individual who is heterozygous for a recessive disorder
_____ 45. the DNA segments that control the production of proteins
Match the terms given with their definitions.
a. double helix
b. transcription
c. mutagen
d. RNA
e. plasmids
_____ 46. the synthesis of mRNA from DNA
_____ 47. certain chemicals and radiation that can damage DNA
_____ 48. a nucleic acid that is similar to DNA
_____ 49. a twisted ladder shape formed by two stands of nucleotides twisted around each other
_____ 50. small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that occur naturally in bacteria and
yeast cells
Unit 3 Evaluation
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Carefully check your answers on this evaluation and make any corrections you feel are necessary. When you are satisfied that you have answered the questions to the best of your ability, transfer your answers to an answer sheet. Please refer to the information sheet that came
with your course materials.
Unit 3 Evaluation
SCIH 025
Name
_________________________________
I.D. Number
_______________________
Unit 4 Evaluation
Biology 1
(SCIH 025 061)
This evaluation will cover the lessons in this unit. It is open book, meaning you can use your
textbook, syllabus, and other course materials. You will need to understand, analyze, and apply the
information you have learned in order to answer the questions correctly. To submit the evaluation,
follow the directions provided.
Multiple Choice
Select the response that best completes the statement or answers the question.
_____
1. What was the source of the original atmosphere of early Earth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
light elements from space
volcanoes
meteorite impacts
outgassing from rocks
2. What is the difference between a cast fossil and a mold fossil?
a. They are two terms for the same kind of fossil.
b. A cast fossil is an impression in rock, but a mold fossil is an impression that was
filled in with minerals.
c. A mold fossil is just an impression in rock; a cast fossil is an impression that was
filled in with minerals.
d. A mold fossil is preserved original tissue, and a cast fossil is petrified.
_____
3. Imagine you are a paleontologist who finds a well-preserved dinosaur skeleton. Careful
excavation of the site reveals apparently undisturbed sediments and a thin layer of
iridium 12 cm below the specimen. Infer the significance of this find. Which of the
following options most closely corresponds to your conclusion?
a. The find is significant because the dinosaur skeleton is so well preserved.
b. The find is significant because it indicates that dinosaur bones may be a source of
iridium.
c. The find is significant because it represents a dinosaur that may have lived after
the Cretaceous period.
d. The find is not very significant since well-preserved dinosaur skeletons are not
particularly rare.
Unit 4 Evaluation
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_____
4. There is good evidence that a meteor hit Earth about 65 million years ago. Which of
the following events that scientists think were triggered by the impact could have
caused the simultaneous global extinctions of multiple species, including all the
dinosaurs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____
The meteor was large enough to trigger powerful earthquakes.
The impact itself triggered global tsunamis.
Volcanic eruptions were set off by the impact.
Atmospheric debris changed global climates for months or years after the impact.
5. Which of the following effects on the evolution of life on Earth was most likely a
consequence of the breakup of the supercontinent Pangea?
a. Populations of animals separated by the breakup of Pangea probably adapted to
new environments and evolved into new species.
b. Continental drift could rapidly change local climates, driving species to extinction.
c. Populations of animals separated by the breakup of Pangea probably remained
exactly the same over time.
d. Continental drift could rapidly change local climates, triggering the evolution of new
species.
_____
6. Which of the following is an accurate statement of the differences between
spontaneous generation and biogenesis?
a. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can only come from life, while
biogenesis is the outdated notion that animals arise from nonliving elements of
their environment.
b. Spontaneous generation and biogenesis are two names for the same principle
concerning the origin of life.
c. Spontaneous generation is the idea that life can come from nonliving components,
while biogenesis is the more modern concept that life can only arise from another
living organism.
d. The concept of spontaneous generation recognizes that species generate offspring
when environmental conditions are favorable, while biogenesis is the idea that life
was created in a single event and has been unchanged ever since.
_____
7. Which option places the likely events in the origin of life in the correct order?
a. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins
/ development of a genetic code / evolution of cells
b. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / synthesis of proteins
/ evolution of cells / development of a genetic code
c. synthesis of proteins / abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic
molecules / development of a genetic code / evolution of cells
d. abiotic synthesis of amino acids and other organic molecules / development of a
genetic code / synthesis of proteins / evolution of cells
Unit 4 Evaluation
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_____
8. What evidence is there that modern archaebacteria may be most like the hypothesized
earliest cells on Earth?
a. Both archaebacteria and early cells share morphological similarities, including a
membrane-bound nucleus.
b. Photosynthesis allows both archaebacteria and the earliest cells to harness energy
from the Sun.
c. Archaebacteria thrive in extreme environments of intense heat or pressure;
microfossils suggest that early life forms lived in volcanic environments.
d. Archaebacteria can only survive in warm, shallow waters similar to the primordial
seas in which cells evolved on early Earth.
_____
9. Banded red rock formations dating from about 1.8 billion years ago were formed from
oxygen reacting with free iron ions. Eventually these rocks were no longer being
formed, and the oxygen began to accumulate in the atmosphere. Integrate this
information and your knowledge of conditions on early Earth. What logical conclusions
can you draw?
a. Oxygen could not accumulate in the atmosphere until most of the free iron ions
were used up.
b. Oxygen had to have been present in the atmosphere before 1.8 billion years ago.
c. Oxygen can be released by banded iron formations.
d. Early life could not evolve before oxygen was present to sustain it.
_____ 10. What implication does the endosymbiont theory have for phylogeny?
a. The origin of eukaryotes is much earlier than previously believed.
b. The phylogenetic tree includes places where the branches separate and come
back together.
c. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes had independent origins, so there are really two
phylogenetic trees.
d. It will be impossible to trace the phylogenetic relationships of eukaryotes.
_____ 11. During phagocytosis of one cell by another, the larger cell engulfs the smaller cell by
enclosing it in a part of its plasma membrane which then pinches off so the cell is then
within the larger cell. Given this may have been the process that brought bacterial cells
into the ancestors of eukaryotic cells as endosymbionts, what structural characteristic
might be expected in mitochondria and chloroplasts?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit 4 Evaluation
amoeboid locomotion
flagella or cilia
a double membrane
a nucleus
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_____ 12. What was the significance of the Cambrian explosion to the evolution of life on Earth?
a.
b.
c.
d.
It was a mass extinction during which nearly 90% of marine species were lost.
It was a rapid diversification of the ancestors of most major animal groups.
It was caused by tectonic instability, resulting in an eruption of multiple volcanoes.
It was the event in which life began, but no fossils survive and little is known.
_____ 13. One hypothesis argues that clay played a role in the increasing complexity of organic
molecules in the pre-life Earth environment. What role does the hypothesis suggest?
a.
b.
c.
d.
acting as a cell membrane
assisting replication of molecules
filtering out key molecule components
stabilizing complex molecules
_____ 14. What effects of continental drift would have most likely have resulted in a new adaptive
radiation following the Permian extinction?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a breakup of Pangea into several land masses
the movement of the entire supercontinent farther to the south
formation of land bridges connecting islands to the mainland
the movement of the entire supercontinent farther …
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