Did the French Revolution separate the “early modern era” from a “late modern era”?

1) Many historians argue that the French Revolution of 1789-1799 was a major historical watershed separating an “early modern era” from a “late modern era” in regard to the social, cultural, and political structures of Europe. How valid is that argument? How different were the political systems of nineteenth- and twentieth-century Europe from those of the three centuries preceding the French Revolution? How did that revolution transform European society and culture? At what point did the influence of the French Revolution end? Be sure to organize your essay around a clearly stated explanatory thesis, and be sure to
sure to support your argument with concrete examples and evidence. If you have access (not sure if it’s online), this is specific textbook used in this course. If you are able to get access to it and reference, you will be compensated above the bid price.
Lynn Hunt et al., The Making of the West: Peoples & Cultures, Volume 2: Since 1500, 5th ed.
(Boston & New York: Bedford/St. Martin’s, 2016)